Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 07:12
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What type of narcissist cheats more and gets pleasure out of hurting you, even if they're married?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
What is the naughtiest fantasy that you've lived out?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.